You went through a fair amount of effort, wrote a lot of words, and refuted nothing. As you mentioned, the group behind that link is unabashedly liberal. Nevertheless, the data they choose to present are well researched. Having knowledge of statistics, they are careful to avoid stating outright fallacies. But they deliberately leave things open for biased, unsophisticated readers like yourself to misinterpret the data. To wit, “Its origins in Reagan’s tax cuts” implies the inequality was caused by the tax cuts. They never stated Reagan’s tax cuts caused inequality, they leave it to you to make the mistake of “post hoc, ergo proctor hoc”, “after this, therefore because of this". Correlation does not mean causation.Lanval wrote:Desperate on your part. Try this out:hippiewannabe wrote:And yes, I was working in the '80s. I came of age in the Carter inflation and malaise days, and in my first full year of working as an entry level engineer, faced a marginal tax rate of over 50%. Reagan fixed that. And then the economy grew 36% between 1983 and 1990. There has been an increasingly desperate attempt to rewrite that history.
http://www.cbpp.org/cms/?fa=view&id=3220
edit: I'm adding a brief explanation, so it's clear what I'm pointing at. A quick image search of google using the keywords "growing gap between the rich and poor in the us" will return a dozen variants of this chart. One version is the chart named figure 1 in the link. No one, on either side of the debate is arguing:
1. The fact of the change
2. Its origins in Reagan's tax cuts
I have to give them some credit, they mention a few inconvenient truths, but try to gloss over them. For example:
They were all about the change since 1979, but then switched to more recent history:The bulk of the increase in after-tax income inequality since 1979 reflects changes in pre-tax incomes. The incomes of the top 1 percent rose 141 percent from 1979 to 2007 before taxes are considered, the CBO data show. The top 1 percent’s share of before-tax income (like its share of after-tax income) more than doubled from 1979 to 2007, from 9.3 percent to 19.4 percent.
Why did they stop at 2000 for the tax data, instead of going back to 1979? Because they didn’t like what the data show (from that conservative scandal sheet, the NYT):The rapidly rising pre-tax incomes of the wealthy help to explain the notable rise in the percentage of total tax revenue collected from these households. CBO’s data show that the share of total federal taxes paid by the top 1 percent of households rose from 25.5 percent in 2000 to 28.1 percent in 2007, the second-highest share since 1979 (only 2006 was higher).
http://economix.blogs.nytimes.com/2010/ ... blogs&_r=0With all this being said, it is also true — as you often hear — that the wealthy are paying more in taxes than they used to. The top 0.01 percent paid 6.5 percent of all federal taxes in 2005, up from 2.7 percent in 1979. More broadly, the top 1 percent paid 27.6 percent of federal taxes in 2005, up from 15.4 percent in 1979. (You sometimes hear larger numbers, but they tend to apply only to income taxes, rather than to all federal taxes.)
So, according to your sources, the share of total income earned by the 1% about doubled, and their share of taxes paid about doubled.
Therefore:
-as I have never disputed (though have showed how it is exaggerated by the choice of data sources) income inequality has increased
- it is not caused by, nor can it be reversed by, tax policy
- the share of taxes paid by the wealthy has gone up, commensurate with their share of income earned
- when tax rates were reduced, revenue collected went up
The truth is not subject to a majority vote. Just because the media is overwhelmingly liberal, and give more air time to liberal interpretations, doesn’t make those interpretations correct.